Why does the Koran use the word "man" in this verse: "Allah has not made for any man two hearts in his (one) body," Surat Al-Ahzab, Verse 4, and it doesn’t refer to woman?
The wording of the Koran followed the way of predominance, i.e. the Koran mostly addresses both man and woman in one form directed to man though they both share the same orders. God made men protectors, maintainers and responsible for women, so they have to seek knowledge and then teach them. God says about Lady Mary though she is a woman:
"And Mary the daughter of 'Imran, who guarded her chastity; and We breathed into (her body) of Our spirit; and she testified to the truth of the words of her Lord and of His Revelations, and was one of the devout men (servants)." Surat At'tahreem, Verse 12.
God doesn’t say: "devout women" though it is about a woman, following the predominance method of the Koran when addressing people.